In 1908, a huge explosion known as the Tunguska Event flattened trees for miles across a remote area of Russia. Scientists now think an asteroid or a comet entered Earth's atmosphere, causing the explosion. Ice core samples from an ice sheet in Greenland reveal signs of this enormous explosion: deposits of ammonia equal to 5 micrograms per square meter. But how exactly did these telltale molecules form?
• Hypothesis 1: The Tunguska explosion started forest fires, known to produce ammonia. Data indicates that such fires would have deposited an amount of ammonia over the Northern Hemisphere equaling 0.1 micrograms per square meter.
• Hypothesis 2: Up to 1% of the object's mass might have been ammonia, and this ammonia might have spread over the Northern Hemisphere. Approximately 0.00005 micrograms of ammonia per square meter are predicted by this hypothesis.
• Hypothesis 3: Since many compounds form in the presence of high heat, the ammonia could
have been produced as the falling object heated the atmosphere. However, heat alone is not
sufficient to cause the formation of ammonia.
• Hypothesis 4: As it passed through the atmosphere, the object pushed air in front of it at high pressure. Nitrogen and hydrogen combine to form ammonia under similar pressure. Considering the amount of hydrogen expected in a comet and the available nitrogen in Earth's atmosphere, approximately 5 micrograms of ammonia per square meter would have been deposited under this hypothesis.
best explains the ammonia deposits found in ice core samples from the time of the Tunguska Event. The evidence that best supports the validity of this hypothesis is the-
- A. Hypothesis 2
- B. heat produced by fast-moving objects in the atmosphere
- C. Hypothesis 1
- D. match between measured and predicted amounts of ammonia
Correct Answer & Rationale
Correct Answer: A,D
The ammonia deposits found in ice core samples from the time of the Tunguska Event suggest a significant environmental impact. Hypothesis 2 (Option A) likely proposes a link between the event and the ammonia presence, making it relevant for explaining the deposits. Option B, which discusses heat from fast-moving objects, does not directly address ammonia production or accumulation. Hypothesis 1 (Option C) may not provide sufficient evidence or detail to support the ammonia findings. Option D highlights the alignment between measured and predicted ammonia levels, reinforcing the validity of Hypothesis 2 as it connects empirical data with theoretical expectations.
The ammonia deposits found in ice core samples from the time of the Tunguska Event suggest a significant environmental impact. Hypothesis 2 (Option A) likely proposes a link between the event and the ammonia presence, making it relevant for explaining the deposits. Option B, which discusses heat from fast-moving objects, does not directly address ammonia production or accumulation. Hypothesis 1 (Option C) may not provide sufficient evidence or detail to support the ammonia findings. Option D highlights the alignment between measured and predicted ammonia levels, reinforcing the validity of Hypothesis 2 as it connects empirical data with theoretical expectations.
Other Related Questions
Which statement describes the motion of the object for the first 10 seconds?
- A. The object is moving at a constant speed.
- B. The object is doubling its speed every two seconds.
- C. The object is increasing its height.
- D. The object is accelerating.
Correct Answer & Rationale
Correct Answer: D
The motion of the object for the first 10 seconds indicates that it is accelerating, meaning its speed is increasing over time. Option A is incorrect because constant speed implies no change in velocity, which contradicts the evidence of acceleration. Option B suggests a specific pattern of doubling speed, which is not necessarily true without further information on the object's velocity changes. Option C, while it may imply upward motion, does not capture the essential aspect of acceleration, which is a change in speed rather than just height.
The motion of the object for the first 10 seconds indicates that it is accelerating, meaning its speed is increasing over time. Option A is incorrect because constant speed implies no change in velocity, which contradicts the evidence of acceleration. Option B suggests a specific pattern of doubling speed, which is not necessarily true without further information on the object's velocity changes. Option C, while it may imply upward motion, does not capture the essential aspect of acceleration, which is a change in speed rather than just height.
Sommer's research concludes that cheetahs have sufficient genetic diversity to respond to common diseases, but may still be at risk of new diseases. Which statement from the passage supports this conclusion?
- A. Major histocompatibility complex (MHC) genes are used by the body to identify self from non-self...
- B. The variation in MHC genes in cheetahs is still smaller than that for other big cat species but appears to be sufficient...
- C. If any of the genetic factors are different, then the immune system of the individual...
- D. Sommer's research determined how many alleles are present on two different types of MHC genes...
Correct Answer & Rationale
Correct Answer: B
Option B directly supports Sommer's conclusion by highlighting that the variation in MHC genes among cheetahs, while less than in other big cats, is adequate for their immune response to common diseases. This indicates sufficient genetic diversity for disease management, aligning with the research's findings. Option A discusses the function of MHC genes but does not address their variation in cheetahs, making it less relevant. Option C mentions genetic factors affecting immune response but lacks specific information about cheetah genetic diversity. Option D focuses on the number of alleles without linking it to the implications for disease response, thus failing to support the conclusion effectively.
Option B directly supports Sommer's conclusion by highlighting that the variation in MHC genes among cheetahs, while less than in other big cats, is adequate for their immune response to common diseases. This indicates sufficient genetic diversity for disease management, aligning with the research's findings. Option A discusses the function of MHC genes but does not address their variation in cheetahs, making it less relevant. Option C mentions genetic factors affecting immune response but lacks specific information about cheetah genetic diversity. Option D focuses on the number of alleles without linking it to the implications for disease response, thus failing to support the conclusion effectively.
Which hypothesis is suitable for this investigation?
- A. Body temperature, breathing rate, and heart rate depend on the health of the subject.
- B. Many of the body's systems respond to exercise.
- C. Body temperature, breathing rate, and heart rate increase with exercise.
- D. Subjects at rest have better health than subjects that exercise.
Correct Answer & Rationale
Correct Answer: C
Option C effectively addresses the investigation by predicting a specific relationship: that body temperature, breathing rate, and heart rate will increase with exercise. This hypothesis is testable and directly relates to physiological responses during physical activity. Option A is too broad, as it suggests a general relationship between health and various physiological metrics without focusing on exercise. Option B, while relevant, lacks specificity regarding the measurable changes in body temperature, breathing rate, and heart rate. Option D presents a misleading comparison, as it contradicts established knowledge about the benefits of exercise for health.
Option C effectively addresses the investigation by predicting a specific relationship: that body temperature, breathing rate, and heart rate will increase with exercise. This hypothesis is testable and directly relates to physiological responses during physical activity. Option A is too broad, as it suggests a general relationship between health and various physiological metrics without focusing on exercise. Option B, while relevant, lacks specificity regarding the measurable changes in body temperature, breathing rate, and heart rate. Option D presents a misleading comparison, as it contradicts established knowledge about the benefits of exercise for health.
The chemical composition and energy density of four fuels are shown in the table. Ethane, which has a chemical composition of C2H6, is also a fuel. What is the predicted energy density of ethane?
- A. 45 MJ/kg
- B. 42 MJ/kg
- C. 52 MJ/kg
- D. 48 MJ/kg
Correct Answer & Rationale
Correct Answer: C
To determine the predicted energy density of ethane (C2H6), one can analyze its molecular structure and compare it to the energy densities of similar hydrocarbons listed in the table. Ethane, being an alkane, typically has a higher energy density due to its saturated carbon-hydrogen bonds. Option A (45 MJ/kg) is lower than expected for alkanes of similar size. Option B (42 MJ/kg) underestimates the energy density, as it does not align with the general trend for hydrocarbons. Option D (48 MJ/kg) is closer but still below the typical range for ethane. Thus, option C (52 MJ/kg) aligns with the expected energy density for ethane, reflecting its molecular composition and energy potential.
To determine the predicted energy density of ethane (C2H6), one can analyze its molecular structure and compare it to the energy densities of similar hydrocarbons listed in the table. Ethane, being an alkane, typically has a higher energy density due to its saturated carbon-hydrogen bonds. Option A (45 MJ/kg) is lower than expected for alkanes of similar size. Option B (42 MJ/kg) underestimates the energy density, as it does not align with the general trend for hydrocarbons. Option D (48 MJ/kg) is closer but still below the typical range for ethane. Thus, option C (52 MJ/kg) aligns with the expected energy density for ethane, reflecting its molecular composition and energy potential.